Class 8 Social Science Part 1 Chapter 5 MCQ

CHAPTER 5: UNIVERSAL FRANCHISE AND INDIA’S ELECTORAL SYSTEM

Q1. What is meant by universal adult franchise?

A. Only educated citizens can vote.
B. Every adult citizen has the right to vote.
C. Only wealthy citizens can vote.
D. Only government employees can vote.

Answer: B. Every adult citizen has the right to vote.

Q2. What is the minimum voting age in India?

A. 16 years
B. 17 years
C. 18 years
D. 21 years

Answer: C. 18 years

Q3. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for elections based on universal adult suffrage?

A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 326



Answer: D. Article 326

Q4. What does the term “franchise” mean in the context of elections?

A. The right to vote
B. The right to own land
C. The right to establish a political party
D. The right to become a government officer

Answer: A. The right to vote



Q5. In which year was the minimum voting age in India reduced from 21 to 18 years?

A. 1976
B. 1988
C. 1991
D. 2000

Answer: B. 1988

Q6. Which of the following does NOT determine an adult citizen’s right to vote in India?



A. Caste
B. Religion
C. Educational qualification
D. None of the above

Answer: D. None of the above

Q7. Before Independence, approximately what percentage of Indians were allowed to vote?

A. 13%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%

Answer: A. 13%

Q8. In which year did India hold its first general elections after Independence?

A. 1947
B. 1951–1952
C. 1955–1956
D. 1962–1963

Answer: B. 1951–1952

Q9. What is a constituency?

A. An office where election results are announced
B. A group of political parties
C. An area whose voters elect a representative to a legislative body
D. A place where political parties register

Answer: C. An area whose voters elect a representative to a legislative body

Q10. Which institution organises elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies in India?

A. Supreme Court of India
B. Parliament of India
C. Ministry of Education
D. Election Commission of India

Answer: D. Election Commission of India

Q11. What is one major purpose of universal adult franchise?

A. To ensure equal voting rights for eligible adult citizens
B. To allow only one political party to contest elections
C. To restrict voting to wealthy people
D. To prevent citizens from choosing representatives

Answer: A. To ensure equal voting rights for eligible adult citizens

Q12. Which of the following is an important benefit of universal adult franchise?

A. It eliminates the need for elections.
B. It allows people to participate in choosing their representatives.
C. It gives unequal value to different citizens’ votes.
D. It prevents citizens from questioning elected representatives.

Answer: B. It allows people to participate in choosing their representatives.

Q13. According to the chapter, approximately how many voters were eligible to vote in India’s 2024 Lok Sabha elections?

A. 100 million
B. 500 million
C. 980 million
D. 1.5 billion

Answer: C. 980 million

Q14. How many constituencies are there for elections to the Lok Sabha, as stated in the chapter?

A. 245
B. 250
C. 412
D. 543

Answer: D. 543

Q15. Which of the following measures helps people with disabilities participate in elections?

A. Braille-enabled voter cards and wheelchair assistance
B. Restricting access to polling stations
C. Allowing only online voting
D. Removing assistance facilities from polling stations

Answer: A. Braille-enabled voter cards and wheelchair assistance

Q16. What is a secret ballot?

A. A voting process in which election results are never announced
B. A voting process in which a voter’s choice remains private
C. A system in which only election officials can vote
D. A system in which candidates select voters

Answer: B. A voting process in which a voter’s choice remains private

Q17. What does NOTA stand for?

A. National Organisation for Transparent Administration
B. National Option to Approve
C. None Of The Above
D. Number of Total Applicants

Answer: C. None Of The Above

Q18. What is the purpose of the NOTA option?

A. To allow voters to vote twice
B. To cancel every election automatically
C. To allow candidates to reject voters
D. To let voters indicate that they do not support any of the listed candidates

Answer: D. To let voters indicate that they do not support any of the listed candidates

Q19. Which institution is responsible for conducting free and fair elections to Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies?

A. Election Commission of India
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. University Grants Commission
D. Finance Commission

Answer: A. Election Commission of India

Q20. In which year was the Election Commission of India established?

A. 1947
B. 1950
C. 1952
D. 1960

Answer: B. 1950

Q21. Which of the following is a responsibility of the Election Commission of India?

A. Preparing school textbooks
B. Collecting income tax
C. Setting election dates and overseeing the electoral process
D. Appointing every state chief minister directly

Answer: C. Setting election dates and overseeing the electoral process

Q22. Who manages elections to gram panchayats and urban local bodies?

A. Supreme Court of India
B. Parliament of India
C. Union Public Service Commission
D. State Election Commissions

Answer: D. State Election Commissions

Q23. What is the main purpose of the Model Code of Conduct?

A. To promote free and fair elections by establishing rules for political parties and candidates
B. To allow ruling parties to use government resources for campaigning
C. To prevent citizens from participating in elections
D. To permit candidates to buy votes

Answer: A. To promote free and fair elections by establishing rules for political parties and candidates

Q24. Which of the following is prohibited under the Model Code of Conduct?

A. Holding peaceful election meetings
B. Influencing voters by offering gifts in exchange for votes
C. Explaining a political party’s policies
D. Encouraging eligible citizens to vote

Answer: B. Influencing voters by offering gifts in exchange for votes

Q25. In which year was the Model Code of Conduct adopted in Kerala?

A. 1947
B. 1950
C. 1960
D. 1991

Answer: C. 1960

Q26. Which Chief Election Commissioner introduced important reforms to strengthen election fairness and transparency after taking office in 1990?

A. Sukumar Sen
B. K. V. K. Sundaram
C. M. S. Gill
D. T. N. Seshan

Answer: D. T. N. Seshan

Q27. What is the First-Past-the-Post electoral system?

A. The candidate who receives the highest number of votes wins the constituency.
B. The candidate must receive every vote to win.
C. The candidate with the fewest votes wins.
D. Candidates are selected only by the President.

Answer: A. The candidate who receives the highest number of votes wins the constituency.

Q28. Can a candidate win an election under the First-Past-the-Post system without receiving more than 50% of the total votes?

A. No, this is never possible.
B. Yes, if the candidate receives more votes than any other candidate.
C. Yes, but only if there is no opposition.
D. No, unless the President approves.

Answer: B. Yes, if the candidate receives more votes than any other candidate.

Q29. What is the main difference between an MP and an MLA?

A. MPs work only in villages, while MLAs work only in cities.
B. MPs are appointed by the President, while MLAs are appointed by governors.
C. MPs represent people in Parliament, while MLAs represent people in State Legislative Assemblies.
D. MPs and MLAs have exactly the same legislative role.

Answer: C. MPs represent people in Parliament, while MLAs represent people in State Legislative Assemblies.

Q30. What is the main role of a Returning Officer during an election?

A. To appoint the Prime Minister
B. To prepare the national budget
C. To register every political party in India
D. To conduct the election in the assigned constituency

Answer: D. To conduct the election in the assigned constituency

Q31. Which of the following is the correct sequence in the voting process described in the chapter?

A. Voter-list and identity check, indelible ink and signature, verification, and voting on the EVM
B. Voting on the EVM, identity check, and then voter registration
C. Counting votes, applying ink, and registering voters
D. Candidate selection, appointment of MPs, and then voting

Answer: A. Voter-list and identity check, indelible ink and signature, verification, and voting on the EVM

Q32. What is the full form of EVM?

A. Electronic Verification Method
B. Electronic Voting Machine
C. Election Validation Mechanism
D. Electoral Voter Management

Answer: B. Electronic Voting Machine

Q33. What is the purpose of VVPAT?

A. To register new political parties
B. To identify the winner before counting
C. To provide a paper record so voters can verify their votes
D. To replace the Election Commission

Answer: C. To provide a paper record so voters can verify their votes

Q34. Which two categories of constituencies have seats reserved in the Lok Sabha, according to the chapter?

A. Government employees and teachers
B. Farmers and industrial workers
C. Women and students
D. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

Answer: D. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

Q35. How many Lok Sabha constituencies are reserved for Scheduled Castes, according to the chapter?

A. 84
B. 47
C. 100
D. 120

Answer: A. 84

Q36. How many Lok Sabha constituencies are reserved for Scheduled Tribes, according to the chapter?

A. 84
B. 47
C. 64
D. 90

Answer: B. 47

Q37. What happens when a political party or coalition wins a majority of seats in the Lok Sabha?

A. The Supreme Court forms the government.
B. The President becomes the leader of the majority party.
C. The party or coalition forms the national government, and its leader typically becomes Prime Minister.
D. The Election Commission appoints all MPs as ministers.

Answer: C. The party or coalition forms the national government, and its leader typically becomes Prime Minister.

Q38. Who typically becomes the Chief Minister of a state after elections?

A. The leader of the party with the fewest seats
B. The Chief Election Commissioner
C. The President of India
D. The leader of the majority party or coalition in the State Legislative Assembly

Answer: D. The leader of the majority party or coalition in the State Legislative Assembly

Q39. How are members of the Rajya Sabha generally elected?

A. Through indirect elections by elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
B. Directly by all citizens in a nationwide vote
C. Exclusively by the Prime Minister
D. By local village councils alone

Answer: A. Through indirect elections by elected members of State Legislative Assemblies

Q40. How many elected members of the Rajya Sabha are described in the chapter as being elected by MLAs?

A. 12
B. 233
C. 245
D. 543

Answer: B. 233

Q41. How many Rajya Sabha members are nominated by the President of India, according to the chapter?

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 15

Answer: C. 12

Q42. Why is the Rajya Sabha known as the Permanent House?

A. Its members are never replaced.
B. It has no elections.
C. Its members serve for life.
D. It is never dissolved, and one-third of its members retire every two years.

Answer: D. It is never dissolved, and one-third of its members retire every two years.

Q43. What is the term of a Rajya Sabha member?

A. Six years
B. Four years
C. Five years
D. Seven years

Answer: A. Six years

Q44. Which electoral system is used for elections to the Rajya Sabha, as described in the chapter?

A. First-Past-the-Post system
B. Single transferable vote system
C. Open voting by all citizens
D. Lottery system

Answer: B. Single transferable vote system

Q45. Who elects the President of India?

A. All citizens directly through a nationwide vote
B. Only the members of the Lok Sabha
C. An Electoral College consisting of specified elected representatives of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
D. Only the Chief Ministers of states

Answer: C. An Electoral College consisting of specified elected representatives of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies

Q46. Which voting system is used in the election of the President of India, according to the chapter?

A. First-Past-the-Post system
B. Simple public referendum
C. Open voting by all citizens
D. Single transferable vote system

Answer: D. Single transferable vote system

Q47. Who elects the Vice President of India?

A. The elected and nominated members of both Houses of Parliament
B. Only the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
C. All registered voters directly
D. Only the members of the Rajya Sabha

Answer: A. The elected and nominated members of both Houses of Parliament

Q48. What is one major challenge facing India’s electoral system, according to the chapter?

A. The complete absence of eligible voters
B. The growing influence of money in elections
C. The abolition of all political parties
D. The absence of any election-related technology

Answer: B. The growing influence of money in elections

Q49. What is voter apathy?

A. The process of registering new voters
B. The system of counting votes electronically
C. A lack of interest or willingness to participate in voting
D. The process of electing Rajya Sabha members

Answer: C. A lack of interest or willingness to participate in voting

Q50. According to the chapter, what is an important way to strengthen Indian democracy?

A. Restricting voting rights to educated citizens
B. Allowing candidates to influence voters with gifts
C. Reducing public awareness of election issues
D. Empowering voters through education, information and awareness so they make responsible choices

Answer: D. Empowering voters through education, information and awareness so they make responsible choices.

Satyam Kharwar is a teacher and the owner of NotesWave.in, providing simple, NCERT-aligned study materials for Classes 6–12.

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