CLASS 9 SOCIAL SCIENCE | CHAPTER 6: DEMOCRACY
50 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs)
Q1. What is democracy?
(A) A system in which power belongs only to the ruler
(B) A form of government in which citizens are the source of power
(C) A system in which the military makes all decisions
(D) A system in which citizens cannot choose their representatives
Answer: (B) A form of government in which citizens are the source of power
Q2. Which principles form the foundation of democracy?
(A) Freedom, equality, justice, rights and duties
(B) Wealth, power and social status
(C) Military strength and territorial expansion
(D) Hereditary rule and absolute authority
Answer: (A) Freedom, equality, justice, rights and duties
Q3. When was the Constitution of India adopted?
(A) 15 August 1947
(B) 26 January 1950
(C) 26 November 1949
(D) 2 October 1950
Answer: (C) 26 November 1949
Q4. When did the Constitution of India come into force?
(A) 26 November 1949
(B) 15 August 1947
(C) 2 October 1950
(D) 26 January 1950
Answer: (D) 26 January 1950
Q5. Which assemblies from the Vedic period reflected collective decision-making?
(A) Sabha, Samiti and Vidhata
(B) Parliament, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Gram Sabha, Panchayat and Municipality
(D) Senate, Congress and Parliament
Answer: (A) Sabha, Samiti and Vidhata
Q6. Which Vedic text contains the Aikyamatya Suktam, emphasising collective thinking and unity of purpose?
(A) Atharva Veda
(B) Rig Veda
(C) Yajur Veda
(D) Sama Veda
Answer: (B) Rig Veda
Q7. How did the Bauddha Sanghas reflect democratic traditions?
(A) They prohibited debate among members.
(B) They allowed only hereditary leaders.
(C) They encouraged discussion and used voting for decisions.
(D) They placed all decisions in the hands of one permanent ruler.
Answer: (C) They encouraged discussion and used voting for decisions.
Q8. In which year was the Constituent Assembly formed to draft the Constitution of India?
(A) 1947
(B) 1950
(C) 1949
(D) 1946
Answer: (D) 1946
Q9. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to draft the Constitution of India?
(A) 2 years, 11 months and 18 days
(B) 1 year and 6 months
(C) 3 years and 6 months
(D) 4 years and 2 months
Answer: (A) 2 years, 11 months and 18 days
Q10. What does popular sovereignty mean?
(A) The judiciary has unlimited power.
(B) The state derives its authority from the people.
(C) The military controls the government.
(D) Political power belongs to hereditary rulers.
Answer: (B) The state derives its authority from the people.
Q11. What is Universal Adult Franchise?
(A) The right to vote given only to government employees
(B) The right to vote given only to property owners
(C) The right of every citizen aged 18 and above to vote
(D) The right to vote given only to educated citizens
Answer: (C) The right of every citizen aged 18 and above to vote
Q12. What does the Rule of Law establish?
(A) Powerful individuals are above the law.
(B) Laws apply only to ordinary citizens.
(C) Government officials cannot be questioned.
(D) No one is above the law, and everyone receives equal protection under it.
Answer: (D) No one is above the law, and everyone receives equal protection under it.
Q13. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
(A) Article 32
(B) Article 14
(C) Article 21A
(D) Article 46
Answer: (A) Article 32
Q14. Which Fundamental Right is covered by Articles 14–18?
(A) Right to Freedom
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right Against Exploitation
(D) Right to Freedom of Religion
Answer: (B) Right to Equality
Q15. Which Article of the Constitution provides for free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 32
(C) Article 21A
(D) Article 46
Answer: (C) Article 21A
Q16. What is the main purpose of the separation of powers?
(A) To give all authority to the executive
(B) To eliminate the judiciary
(C) To allow the legislature to control every institution
(D) To prevent the concentration of power in one organ of government
Answer: (D) To prevent the concentration of power in one organ of government
Q17. Which organ of government makes laws?
(A) Legislature
(B) Executive
(C) Judiciary
(D) Election Commission
Answer: (A) Legislature
Q18. Which organ of government implements laws?
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislature
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General
Answer: (B) Executive
Q19. Which organ of government interprets laws and can declare unconstitutional laws invalid?
(A) Executive
(B) Legislature
(C) Judiciary
(D) Political parties
Answer: (C) Judiciary
Q20. What is Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
(A) A method of conducting elections
(B) A procedure for collecting taxes
(C) A meeting of political parties
(D) A legal action initiated in a court for the enforcement of public interest
Answer: (D) A legal action initiated in a court for the enforcement of public interest
Q21. Which Act allows citizens to seek information from government agencies?
(A) Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(C) PESA Act, 1996
(D) Right to Education Act, 2009
Answer: (A) Right to Information Act, 2005
Q22. What happens in a multi-party democracy?
(A) Only one political party is allowed to contest elections.
(B) Several political parties contest elections and represent different interests.
(C) Political parties are not permitted to express their views.
(D) Citizens cannot choose their representatives.
Answer: (B) Several political parties contest elections and represent different interests.
Q23. Which Act provides the framework of rules and regulations for political parties contesting elections in India, as discussed in the chapter?
(A) Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) PESA Act, 1996
(C) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(D) Right to Education Act, 2009
Answer: (C) Representation of the People Act, 1951
Q24. Which Article directs the State to promote the educational and economic interests of weaker sections, particularly Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 21A
(C) Article 32
(D) Article 46
Answer: (D) Article 46
Q25. Which institution is responsible for conducting and supervising elections in India?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Central Information Commission
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General
(D) Central Vigilance Commission
Answer: (A) Election Commission of India
Q26. Which institution is associated with auditing government accounts and promoting accountability?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
(C) Parliament’s opposition parties only
(D) Gram Sabha
Answer: (B) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
Q27. Why is the media often called the fourth pillar of democracy?
(A) It appoints the Prime Minister.
(B) It makes all judicial decisions.
(C) It informs citizens, raises public issues and gives people a voice.
(D) It replaces elected representatives.
Answer: (C) It informs citizens, raises public issues and gives people a voice.
Q28. What is direct democracy?
(A) A system in which citizens cannot participate in decisions
(B) A system in which only elected representatives make decisions
(C) A system in which the executive is independent of the legislature
(D) A system in which citizens directly participate in most decision-making processes
Answer: (D) A system in which citizens directly participate in most decision-making processes
Q29. Which country is given as an example of direct democracy in the chapter?
(A) Switzerland
(B) India
(C) Canada
(D) United States of America
Answer: (A) Switzerland
Q30. Which type of democracy is practised in India?
(A) Direct democracy only
(B) Representative parliamentary democracy
(C) Presidential democracy
(D) Absolute monarchy
Answer: (B) Representative parliamentary democracy
Q31. What is a key feature of parliamentary democracy?
(A) The executive is completely independent of the legislature.
(B) The president always heads the government.
(C) The executive is accountable to the legislature.
(D) Citizens do not elect the legislature.
Answer: (C) The executive is accountable to the legislature.
Q32. Which country is given as an example of presidential democracy?
(A) India
(B) Canada
(C) United Kingdom
(D) United States of America
Answer: (D) United States of America
Q33. In a presidential democracy, what is a key feature of the executive?
(A) It is independent of the legislature.
(B) It is always headed by the Prime Minister.
(C) It is selected only by the judiciary.
(D) It has no responsibility towards citizens.
Answer: (A) It is independent of the legislature.
Q34. What is federalism?
(A) A system in which all power belongs to local bodies.
(B) A system in which power and responsibilities are shared between central and state governments.
(C) A system in which the judiciary controls the legislature.
(D) A system in which elections are not held.
Answer: (B) A system in which power and responsibilities are shared between central and state governments.
Q35. Which three levels of government form India’s constitutional framework?
(A) Village, district and division only
(B) Legislature, executive and judiciary
(C) Union, State and Local governments
(D) Parliament, courts and political parties
Answer: (C) Union, State and Local governments
Q36. What is the primary purpose of the PESA Act, 1996?
(A) To regulate national elections
(B) To establish presidential democracy
(C) To control the functioning of the Supreme Court
(D) To extend Panchayat provisions to Scheduled Areas and empower Gram Sabhas
Answer: (D) To extend Panchayat provisions to Scheduled Areas and empower Gram Sabhas
Q37. What is one important role of Autonomous District Councils in certain north-eastern regions?
(A) Protecting tribal customs and heritage through local authority
(B) Replacing the Constitution of India
(C) Conducting all national elections
(D) Controlling the central government
Answer: (A) Protecting tribal customs and heritage through local authority
Q38. Which award did Jethipura Gram Panchayat in Gujarat receive in 2019?
(A) Padma Shri
(B) Nanaji Deshmukh Rashtriya Gaurav Gram Sabha Puraskar
(C) Bharat Ratna
(D) National Sports Award
Answer: (B) Nanaji Deshmukh Rashtriya Gaurav Gram Sabha Puraskar
Q39. Which Gram Panchayat in Tripura is highlighted in the chapter for promoting women’s participation and welfare?
(A) Jethipura Gram Panchayat
(B) Uttaramerur Gram Panchayat
(C) South Manubankul Gram Panchayat
(D) Dholavira Gram Panchayat
Answer: (C) South Manubankul Gram Panchayat
Q40. When did women in India receive voting rights without discrimination under Universal Adult Franchise?
(A) 1920
(B) 1928
(C) 1947
(D) 1950, when the Constitution came into force
Answer: (D) 1950, when the Constitution came into force
Q41. What minimum reservation for women in seats filled by direct election in every Panchayat is provided by Article 243(d), as stated in the chapter?
(A) Not less than one-third
(B) Exactly one-fourth
(C) Not less than two-thirds
(D) No reservation
Answer: (A) Not less than one-third
Q42. In which year did the Right to Information Act come into force in India?
(A) 1996
(B) 2005
(C) 2009
(D) 2014
Answer: (B) 2005
Q43. Which of the following is identified as a challenge to democratic practices in India?
(A) Responsible use of information
(B) Equal participation in elections
(C) Misinformation and fake news
(D) Respect for diverse opinions
Answer: (C) Misinformation and fake news
Q44. During which period was the National Emergency imposed in India, as discussed in the chapter?
(A) 1947–1950
(B) 1962–1965
(C) 1980–1984
(D) 1975–1977
Answer: (D) 1975–1977
Q45. What happened during the Emergency of 1975–1977?
(A) Press censorship was imposed and a majority of Fundamental Rights were suspended.
(B) All political restrictions were removed.
(C) The Constitution was never applied again.
(D) Elections were held every month.
Answer: (A) Press censorship was imposed and a majority of Fundamental Rights were suspended.
Q46. Which leader was popularly known as Lok Nayak and led mass movements during the Emergency period?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Jayaprakash Narayan
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer: (B) Jayaprakash Narayan
Q47. What demonstrated the resilience of Indian democracy after the Emergency?
(A) The permanent suspension of elections
(B) The end of all political parties
(C) The lifting of the Emergency and the general elections of 1977
(D) The abolition of the Constitution
Answer: (C) The lifting of the Emergency and the general elections of 1977
Q48. Which of the following is an example of civic responsibility?
(A) Spreading misinformation online
(B) Damaging public property
(C) Ignoring all public issues
(D) Respecting others’ rights and using social media responsibly
Answer: (D) Respecting others’ rights and using social media responsibly
Q49. Which programmes are mentioned in the chapter as helping develop civic responsibility and social awareness among young people?
(A) National Service Scheme (NSS) and National Cadet Corps (NCC)
(B) Election Commission and Supreme Court
(C) CAG and Central Information Commission
(D) Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
Answer: (A) National Service Scheme (NSS) and National Cadet Corps (NCC)
Q50. According to the chapter, what ultimately strengthens democracy?
(A) Concentration of power in one institution
(B) Informed and responsible citizens who actively participate in society
(C) Restricting citizens from expressing opinions
(D) Limiting public participation to election day alone
Answer: (B) Informed and responsible citizens who actively participate in society
CLASS 9 SOCIAL SCIENCE | CHAPTER 6: DEMOCRACY
ASSERTION–REASON QUESTIONS
Directions: Choose the correct option for each question.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q1. Assertion (A): India is the world’s largest democracy.
Reason (R): India has a very large electorate, and citizens elect their representatives through elections.
Answer: (A)
Q2. Assertion (A): The Constitution of India came into force on 26 November 1949.
Reason (R): The Constitution of India was adopted on 26 November 1949.
Answer: (D)
Q3. Assertion (A): The Vedic assemblies reflected traditions of collective decision-making.
Reason (R): Sabha, Samiti and Vidhata were associated with discussion and collective affairs.
Answer: (A)
Q4. Assertion (A): The Bauddha Sanghas prohibited discussion among their members.
Reason (R): Members of the Sanghas could debate, choose leaders and make decisions through voting.
Answer: (D)
Q5. Assertion (A): Popular sovereignty means that the ultimate source of state authority lies with the people.
Reason (R): Citizens exercise their voting rights to elect governments and representatives.
Answer: (A)
Q6. Assertion (A): Universal Adult Franchise in India gives every citizen aged 18 and above the right to vote.
Reason (R): Voting is restricted to citizens who own property and have a certain level of education.
Answer: (C)
Q7. Assertion (A): The Rule of Law promotes justice and accountability.
Reason (R): It ensures that no one is above the law and that disputes are resolved through legal procedures.
Answer: (A)
Q8. Assertion (A): Fundamental Rights are important for protecting citizens’ freedom and dignity.
Reason (R): The Indian Constitution provides six categories of Fundamental Rights.
Answer: (B)
Q9. Assertion (A): The legislature implements laws, while the executive interprets them.
Reason (R): The legislature makes laws, the executive implements them, and the judiciary interprets them.
Answer: (D)
Q10. Assertion (A): Separation of powers helps prevent the concentration of power in one organ of government.
Reason (R): The legislature, executive and judiciary have distinct responsibilities.
Answer: (A)
Q11. Assertion (A): Public Interest Litigation can help people seek justice.
Reason (R): PIL is a legal action initiated in a court for the enforcement of public interest.
Answer: (A)
Q12. Assertion (A): The Right to Information Act was enacted in India in 2005.
Reason (R): It empowers citizens to seek information from government departments and strengthens accountability.
Answer: (A)
Q13. Assertion (A): A multi-party system allows different political interests and viewpoints to be represented.
Reason (R): Several political parties can contest elections in a multi-party system.
Answer: (A)
Q14. Assertion (A): Article 46 directs the State to protect the educational and economic interests of weaker sections.
Reason (R): Article 46 is the constitutional provision that establishes the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer: (C)
Q15. Assertion (A): The media is often called the fourth pillar of democracy.
Reason (R): The media informs citizens, raises public issues and provides a voice to the public.
Answer: (A)
Q16. Assertion (A): In direct democracy, citizens participate directly in most decision-making processes.
Reason (R): Switzerland is given as an example of direct democracy in the chapter.
Answer: (B)
Q17. Assertion (A): India follows a presidential system of democracy.
Reason (R): In a parliamentary democracy, the executive is accountable to the legislature.
Answer: (D)
Q18. Assertion (A): Federalism involves sharing power and responsibilities between central and state governments.
Reason (R): India’s constitutional framework includes Union, State and Local governments.
Answer: (B)
Q19. Assertion (A): The PESA Act, 1996, empowers Gram Sabhas in Scheduled Areas.
Reason (R): The Act extends Panchayat provisions to Scheduled Areas and strengthens local decision-making.
Answer: (A)
Q20. Assertion (A): Democracy in India is limited to voting during elections.
Reason (R): Citizens can also participate through local councils, public consultations and community initiatives.
Answer: (D)
Q21. Assertion (A): Women in India received voting rights without discrimination when the Constitution came into force.
Reason (R): Universal Adult Franchise was extended to all citizens, men and women alike.
Answer: (A)
Q22. Assertion (A): Article 243(d) provides for not less than one-third reservation for women in Panchayats.
Reason (R): Some states have made provisions for 50% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Answer: (B)
Q23. Assertion (A): Fake news and misinformation can weaken democracy.
Reason (R): Misinformation can influence public opinion, create confusion and sometimes lead to conflict.
Answer: (A)
Q24. Assertion (A): During the Emergency of 1975–1977, press censorship was imposed.
Reason (R): The Emergency was lifted in 1977, and general elections were held.
Answer: (B)
Q25. Assertion (A): Responsible citizenship is important for strengthening democracy.
Reason (R): Informed citizens can form opinions based on authentic information and participate responsibly in public life.
Answer: (A)
