CLASS 9 SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER 7: ELECTIONS
50 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs)
Q1. Why are elections essential in a democracy?
(A) They allow rulers to remain in power permanently.
(B) They enable citizens to choose representatives and hold them accountable.
(C) They eliminate the need for laws.
(D) They prevent citizens from participating in government.
Answer: (B) They enable citizens to choose representatives and hold them accountable.
Q2. What are direct elections?
(A) Elections in which citizens directly vote to choose their representatives.
(B) Elections in which judges select representatives.
(C) Elections in which only political parties vote.
(D) Elections in which representatives are appointed by the President.
Answer: (A) Elections in which citizens directly vote to choose their representatives.
Q3. Which of the following is elected through an indirect election in India?
(A) Member of the Lok Sabha
(B) Member of the Vidhan Sabha
(C) Member of a Panchayat
(D) President of India
Answer: (D) President of India.
Q4. How often are members of the Lok Sabha ordinarily elected?
(A) Every two years
(B) Every three years
(C) Every five years
(D) Every seven years
Answer: (C) Every five years.
Q5. What does the term “psephology” mean?
(A) The study of political constitutions
(B) The scientific study of elections
(C) The study of ancient languages
(D) The study of economic systems
Answer: (B) The scientific study of elections.
Q6. Which electoral system is used to elect members of the Lok Sabha?
(A) First-Past-The-Post system
(B) Proportional Representation only
(C) Presidential system
(D) Nomination system
Answer: (A) First-Past-The-Post system.
Q7. Under the First-Past-The-Post system, who wins an election in a constituency?
(A) The candidate who receives exactly 50% of the votes
(B) The candidate who is selected by the judiciary
(C) The candidate who receives the most votes, even without an absolute majority
(D) The candidate nominated by the Election Commission
Answer: (C) The candidate who receives the most votes, even without an absolute majority.
Q8. Which electoral system is used for elections to the Rajya Sabha, the President and the Vice President, as described in the chapter?
(A) First-Past-The-Post only
(B) Direct voting by every citizen
(C) Majority system only
(D) Proportional Representation
Answer: (D) Proportional Representation.
Q9. What is the main feature of the majority system shown in the chapter?
(A) A candidate must receive more than 50% of the votes to win.
(B) Seats are distributed in proportion to each party’s vote share.
(C) Every voter votes for a political party rather than a candidate.
(D) The candidate with the fewest votes wins.
Answer: (A) A candidate must receive more than 50% of the votes to win.
Q10. What happens under Proportional Representation in the example given in the chapter?
(A) All seats go to the party with the most votes.
(B) Seats are distributed according to the proportion of votes received by each party.
(C) The President appoints all members.
(D) Only independent candidates can win.
Answer: (B) Seats are distributed according to the proportion of votes received by each party.
Q11. Which states are mentioned in the chapter as having a bicameral legislature?
(A) Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Goa, Kerala and Sikkim
(B) Gujarat, Odisha, Assam, Jharkhand, Himachal Pradesh and Goa
(C) Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Punjab, Haryana, Goa and Sikkim
Answer: (C) Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh.
Q12. What are the two houses of a bicameral state legislature?
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Parliament and Supreme Court
(C) Gram Sabha and Panchayat
(D) Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad
Answer: (D) Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad.
Q13. Which law primarily deals with the allocation of seats, delimitation of constituencies and preparation of electoral rolls?
(A) Representation of the People Act, 1950
(B) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(C) Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Anti-Defection Law, 1985
Answer: (A) Representation of the People Act, 1950.
Q14. Which Act deals with candidate nominations, election campaigns, voting procedures and post-election disputes?
(A) Representation of the People Act, 1950
(B) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(C) PESA Act, 1996
(D) Right to Education Act, 2009
Answer: (B) Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Q15. What is delimitation?
(A) The process of registering political parties
(B) The process of counting votes
(C) The process of determining seats and fixing constituency boundaries
(D) The process of appointing ministers
Answer: (C) The process of determining seats and fixing constituency boundaries.
Q16. Which Article of the Constitution mandates the establishment of a Delimitation Commission?
(A) Article 14
(B) Article 21
(C) Article 32
(D) Article 82
Answer: (D) Article 82.
Q17. When was the Election Commission of India established?
(A) 25 January 1950
(B) 26 January 1950
(C) 15 August 1947
(D) 26 November 1949
Answer: (A) 25 January 1950.
Q18. Which Articles of the Indian Constitution provide for the Election Commission of India and define its powers and duties?
(A) Articles 14–18
(B) Articles 324–329
(C) Articles 36–51
(D) Articles 52–62
Answer: (B) Articles 324–329.
Q19. What is the primary responsibility of the Election Commission of India?
(A) Making laws for Parliament
(B) Appointing all judges
(C) Supervising, directing and controlling the election process
(D) Preparing the Union Budget
Answer: (C) Supervising, directing and controlling the election process.
Q20. What is an electoral roll?
(A) A list of political parties and their symbols
(B) A list of elected members of Parliament
(C) A record of election campaign expenses only
(D) An official list of eligible voters in a constituency
Answer: (D) An official list of eligible voters in a constituency.
Q21. What is the purpose of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls?
(A) To verify and update voter lists and correct errors.
(B) To change the Constitution.
(C) To appoint new political party leaders.
(D) To determine the salaries of elected representatives.
Answer: (A) To verify and update voter lists and correct errors.
Q22. Who decides the election schedule and dates in India?
(A) The Supreme Court alone
(B) The Election Commission of India
(C) The Prime Minister alone
(D) The political party that won the previous election
Answer: (B) The Election Commission of India.
Q23. Which of the following can contest elections in India, according to the chapter?
(A) Only candidates nominated by the President
(B) Only candidates belonging to national parties
(C) Candidates affiliated with registered political parties and independent candidates
(D) Only government employees
Answer: (C) Candidates affiliated with registered political parties and independent candidates.
Q24. What is one role of the Election Commission regarding political parties?
(A) It writes the manifestos of all parties.
(B) It appoints every party’s elected representatives.
(C) It decides all government policies.
(D) It registers political parties and allocates election symbols.
Answer: (D) It registers political parties and allocates election symbols.
Q25. When is National Voters’ Day celebrated in India?
(A) 25 January
(B) 26 January
(C) 15 August
(D) 2 October
Answer: (A) 25 January.
Q26. Which of the following is an example of an electoral offence mentioned in the chapter?
(A) Publishing a candidate’s manifesto
(B) Offering gifts or promises to influence voting
(C) Registering eligible voters
(D) Organising voter-awareness campaigns
Answer: (B) Offering gifts or promises to influence voting.
Q27. Which action is prohibited as a corrupt electoral practice under the provisions discussed in the chapter?
(A) Explaining a party’s policies
(B) Organising a peaceful public meeting
(C) Appealing for votes on the basis of religion, caste, race, community or language
(D) Publishing information about candidates
Answer: (C) Appealing for votes on the basis of religion, caste, race, community or language.
Q28. What is the purpose of the Model Code of Conduct?
(A) To determine the number of constituencies in every state
(B) To decide the salaries of Members of Parliament
(C) To register all eligible voters
(D) To guide the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections
Answer: (D) To guide the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections.
Q29. What is the main purpose of the Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)?
(A) To allow voters to verify a paper record of their vote
(B) To register political parties
(C) To determine constituency boundaries
(D) To prepare election schedules
Answer: (A) To allow voters to verify a paper record of their vote.
Q30. What does ETPBS stand for?
(A) Election Tracking and Polling Ballot Service
(B) Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System
(C) Electoral Transfer and Political Ballot Scheme
(D) Electronic Transparency and Polling Booth System
Answer: (B) Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System.
Q31. Who can use ETPBS, as described in the chapter?
(A) Only first-time voters
(B) Only candidates contesting elections
(C) Service voters who need to cast postal ballots outside their assigned constituency
(D) Only political party office-bearers
Answer: (C) Service voters who need to cast postal ballots outside their assigned constituency.
Q32. Which app allows voters to report violations of the Model Code of Conduct and election misconduct?
(A) Suvidha
(B) Saksham
(C) Voter Helpline
(D) cVIGIL
Answer: (D) cVIGIL.
Q33. Which app provides customised services to help persons with disabilities participate in voting?
(A) Saksham App
(B) Suvidha App
(C) Sugam App
(D) cVIGIL App
Answer: (A) Saksham App.
Q34. Which app is designed to help contesting candidates and political parties with nomination forms and permissions?
(A) Voter Helpline App
(B) Suvidha App
(C) Saksham App
(D) ETPBS
Answer: (B) Suvidha App.
Q35. What is one important function of political parties during elections?
(A) Replacing the Election Commission
(B) Preventing voters from learning about candidates
(C) Presenting policies and programmes to help voters make informed choices
(D) Appointing judges to election tribunals
Answer: (C) Presenting policies and programmes to help voters make informed choices.
Q36. What does India’s multi-party system mean?
(A) Only one political party is allowed to exist.
(B) All political parties must have identical policies.
(C) Elections are held without candidates.
(D) Many political parties exist and compete in elections.
Answer: (D) Many political parties exist and compete in elections.
Q37. What is defection in politics?
(A) Abandoning or switching from the political party under whose banner a candidate was elected
(B) Registering as a voter for the first time
(C) Joining a peaceful election campaign
(D) Publishing a party manifesto
Answer: (A) Abandoning or switching from the political party under whose banner a candidate was elected.
Q38. In which year was the Anti-Defection Law passed through the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act?
(A) 1975
(B) 1985
(C) 1991
(D) 2005
Answer: (B) 1985.
Q39. What is the main purpose of the Anti-Defection Law?
(A) To increase the number of constituencies
(B) To allow candidates to change parties without consequences
(C) To prevent political defections and promote stability in elected governments
(D) To replace all state legislatures
Answer: (C) To prevent political defections and promote stability in elected governments.
Q40. Who decides cases of possible disqualification under the Anti-Defection Law in a House?
(A) The Election Commission alone
(B) The President alone
(C) The Chief Election Commissioner alone
(D) The Speaker or Chairman of the House
Answer: (D) The Speaker or Chairman of the House.
Q41. What is one criterion for recognition as a national political party mentioned in the chapter?
(A) Being recognised as a state party in at least four states
(B) Winning every seat in one state
(C) Contesting only local body elections
(D) Having no registered members
Answer: (A) Being recognised as a state party in at least four states.
Q42. Which year marked the end of the era of single-party-dominated elections in India and the beginning of an era of alliances, according to the chapter?
(A) 1950
(B) 1967
(C) 1985
(D) 2002
Answer: (B) 1967.
Q43. Which party formed the first coalition government at the national level in 1977?
(A) Indian National Congress
(B) Bharatiya Janata Party
(C) Janata Party
(D) Communist Party of India (Marxist)
Answer: (C) Janata Party.
Q44. Which of the following is identified as a challenge to free and fair elections?
(A) Accurate vote counting
(B) Accessible polling stations
(C) Voter-awareness campaigns
(D) Intimidation and misinformation
Answer: (D) Intimidation and misinformation.
Q45. Which measures help address challenges to free and fair elections?
(A) The Representation of the People Acts, Model Code of Conduct, EVMs, VVPAT and voter-awareness campaigns
(B) Suspending all elections
(C) Restricting eligible citizens from voting
(D) Allowing candidates to influence vote counting
Answer: (A) The Representation of the People Acts, Model Code of Conduct, EVMs, VVPAT and voter-awareness campaigns.
Q46. What is the purpose of making elections more inclusive?
(A) To allow only urban residents to vote
(B) To help eligible voters, including persons with disabilities and senior citizens, participate in elections
(C) To reduce the number of eligible voters
(D) To prevent independent candidates from contesting
Answer: (B) To help eligible voters, including persons with disabilities and senior citizens, participate in elections.
Q47. According to the chapter, for which groups was voting from home extended across India for the first time during the 2024 General Elections?
(A) All voters below 25 years of age
(B) All government employees
(C) Senior citizens above 85 years of age and persons with benchmark disabilities of 40%
(D) All candidates contesting elections
Answer: (C) Senior citizens above 85 years of age and persons with benchmark disabilities of 40%.
Q48. What is the role of the opposition party in a democracy, as illustrated in the chapter?
(A) To conduct elections independently of the Election Commission
(B) To appoint all ministers
(C) To prevent debates in the legislature
(D) To ensure accountability and participate in debates and committees
Answer: (D) To ensure accountability and participate in debates and committees.
Q49. What does the chapter identify as an important responsibility of citizens during elections?
(A) Voting fearlessly and without being influenced by inducements or discrimination
(B) Supporting candidates only on the basis of caste
(C) Avoiding all election-related information
(D) Preventing others from exercising their voting rights
Answer: (A) Voting fearlessly and without being influenced by inducements or discrimination.
Q50. According to the chapter, what helps make democracy more robust?
(A) Preventing citizens from questioning elected representatives
(B) Free, fair and transparent elections supported by active citizen participation
(C) Allowing only one political party to contest elections
(D) Removing accountability from elected representatives
Answer: (B) Free, fair and transparent elections supported by active citizen participation.
CLASS 9 SOCIAL SCIENCE
CHAPTER 7: ELECTIONS
ASSERTION–REASON QUESTIONS
Directions: Choose the correct option for each question.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Q1. Assertion (A): Periodic elections are essential for a democratic system.
Reason (R): Elections allow citizens to choose their representatives and hold them accountable.
Answer: (A)
Q2. Assertion (A): Members of the Lok Sabha are elected through indirect elections.
Reason (R): The President of India is elected through an indirect election.
Answer: (D)
Q3. Assertion (A): Psephology is the scientific study of elections.
Reason (R): The term is derived from the Greek word “psēphos”, meaning pebble.
Answer: (B)
Q4. Assertion (A): India uses the First-Past-The-Post system for Lok Sabha elections.
Reason (R): Under this system, the candidate who receives the most votes in a constituency wins, even without receiving more than 50% of the votes.
Answer: (A)
Q5. Assertion (A): Under the Proportional Representation system, seats are distributed according to the proportion of votes received by political parties.
Reason (R): In this system, every voter must vote for an individual candidate in their constituency.
Answer: (C)
Q6. Assertion (A): Some Indian states have bicameral legislatures.
Reason (R): A bicameral state legislature consists of the Vidhan Sabha and the Vidhan Parishad.
Answer: (A)
Q7. Assertion (A): The Representation of the People Act, 1950 deals mainly with the preparation and revision of electoral rolls.
Reason (R): The Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with candidate nominations, election campaigns, voting procedures and election disputes.
Answer: (B)
Q8. Assertion (A): Delimitation helps promote equal representation across constituencies.
Reason (R): Delimitation involves determining the number of seats and fixing constituency boundaries.
Answer: (A)
Q9. Assertion (A): The Election Commission of India is a permanent constitutional body.
Reason (R): It was established on 25 January 1950.
Answer: (B)
Q10. Assertion (A): Only people whose names appear on the electoral roll are allowed to vote.
Reason (R): Electoral rolls contain the official list of eligible voters in each constituency.
Answer: (A)
Q11. Assertion (A): The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) helps maintain accurate electoral rolls.
Reason (R): It verifies and updates voter lists and helps correct errors and remove ineligible entries.
Answer: (A)
Q12. Assertion (A): The Election Commission of India decides the election schedule.
Reason (R): The election schedule may take into account weather conditions, agricultural cycles, examinations and festivals.
Answer: (A)
Q13. Assertion (A): Independent candidates are not permitted to contest elections in India.
Reason (R): Candidates affiliated with political parties and independent candidates can contest elections.
Answer: (D)
Q14. Assertion (A): National Voters’ Day is celebrated on 25 January.
Reason (R): The Election Commission of India was established on 25 January 1950.
Answer: (A)
Q15. Assertion (A): Offering gifts or promises to influence a person’s vote is an electoral offence.
Reason (R): Such inducements can undermine the fairness of elections.
Answer: (A)
Q16. Assertion (A): The boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies remain permanently fixed.
Reason (R): Delimitation may change constituency boundaries over time to account for changes in population distribution.
Answer: (D)
Q17. Assertion (A): The VVPAT system helps voters verify a paper record of their vote.
Reason (R): The VVPAT system is used to register political parties and allocate election symbols.
Answer: (C)
Q18. Assertion (A): The cVIGIL App enables citizens to report violations of the Model Code of Conduct.
Reason (R): The app helps report election misconduct so that prompt action can be taken.
Answer: (A)
Q19. Assertion (A): Political parties help voters make informed choices during elections.
Reason (R): Political parties communicate their policies, programmes and positions on public issues.
Answer: (A)
Q20. Assertion (A): India has a multi-party system.
Reason (R): Many political parties exist and compete in elections, reflecting the country’s diversity.
Answer: (A)
Q21. Assertion (A): Defection refers to switching from the political party under whose banner a candidate was elected.
Reason (R): The Anti-Defection Law was passed in 1985 through the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
Answer: (B)
Q22. Assertion (A): The Anti-Defection Law aims to promote stability in elected governments.
Reason (R): Under the law, a member may face disqualification for voluntarily giving up party membership or voting against party instructions in specified circumstances.
Answer: (A)
Q23. Assertion (A): The opposition party has no meaningful role in a democracy.
Reason (R): The opposition helps ensure accountability and participates in legislative debates and committees.
Answer: (D)
Q24. Assertion (A): Misinformation, fake news and intimidation can threaten free and fair elections.
Reason (R): Such challenges can affect voters’ choices and weaken confidence in the electoral process.
Answer: (A)
Q25. Assertion (A): Making elections accessible to persons with disabilities and senior citizens supports inclusive democracy.
Reason (R): During the 2024 General Elections, voting from home was extended across India to senior citizens above 85 years and persons with benchmark disabilities of 40%.
Answer: (B)
